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psychology
Why were the psychoanalytically-based explanations of autism, resembling these of Bettelheim and Mahler, taken significantly in the 1950s and 1960s? Why have psychoanalytic/psychotherapeutic approaches to understanding autism (see, for instance, Tustin, 1981/1995, 1991) continued to have a task in treating kids and adults with ASD and supporting their households? Why were psychoanalytic explanations for autism, resembling Bettelheim’s and Mahler’s, taken significantly in the 1950s and 1960s?

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