Question
1. Question : Continued therapy of pernicious anemia (PA) generally lasts how long?
6 to 8 weeks
8 to 12 months
Until the iron level is normal
The rest of one’s life
Question 2. : What pulmonary defense mechanism propels a mucous blanket that entraps particles moving toward the oropharynx?
Nasal turbinates
Alveolar macrophages
Cilia
Irritant receptors on the nares
Question 3. : The common hay fever allergy is expressed through a reaction that is mediated by which class of immunoglobulins?
IgE
IgG
IgM
T cells
Question 4. : Which of the following describes how the body compensates for anemia?
Increasing rate and depth of breathing
Decreasing capillary vasoconstriction
Hemoglobin holding more firmly onto oxygen
Kidneys releasing more erythropoietin
Question 5. : Obesity creates a greater risk for dehydration in people because:
Adipose cells contain little water because fat is water repelling.
The metabolic rate of obese adults is slower than the rate of lean adults.
The rate of urine output of obese adults is higher than the rate of output of lean adults.
The thirst receptors of the hypothalamus do not function effectively.
Question 6. : Which hormone prompts increased anxiety, vigilance, and arousal during a stress response?
Norepinephrine
Epinephrine
Cortisol
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Question 7. : What is the treatment of choice for pernicious anemia (PA)?
Cyanocobalamin by oral intake
Vitamin B12 by injection
Ferrous fumarate by Z-track injection
Folate by oral intake
Question 8. : Which sexually transmitted infection frequently coexists with gonorrhea?
Syphilis
Herpes simplex virus
Chlamydia
Chancroid
Question 9. : During an infection, why do lymph nodes enlarge and become tender?
B lymphocytes proliferate.
The nodes are inflamed.
The nodes fill with purulent exudate.
The nodes are not properly functioning.
Question 10. : Chvostek and Trousseau signs indicate which electrolyte imbalance?
Hypokalemia
Hyperkalemia
Hypocalcemia
Hypercalcemia
Question 11. : What is the suggested mean blood pressure for an 8- to 9-year-old child?
104/55 mm Hg
106/58 mm Hg
112/62 mm Hg
121/70 mm Hg
Question 12. : Stress-induced sympathetic stimulation of the adrenal medulla causes the secretion of:
Epinephrine and aldosterone
Norepinephrine and cortisol
Epinephrine and norepinephrine
Acetylcholine and cortisol
Question 13. : Bronchiolitis tends to occur during the first years of life and is most often caused by what type of infection?
Respiratory syncytial virus (RSV)
Influenzavirus
Adenoviruses
Rhinovirus
Question 14. : What is the function of erythrocytes?
Tissue oxygenation
Hemostasis
Infection control
Allergy response
Question 15. : The tonic neck reflex observed in a newborn should no longer be obtainable by:
2 years
1 year
10 months
5 months
Question 16. Where are Kupffer cells located?
Kidneys
Liver
Pancreas
Spleen
Question 17. Stress-induced norepinephrine results in:
Pupil constriction
Peripheral vasoconstriction
Increased sweat gland secretions
Decreased blood pressure
Question 18. Which normal physiologic change occurs in the aging pulmonary system?
Decreased flow resistance
Fewer alveoli
Stiffening of the chest wall
Improved elastic recoil
Question 19. Which statement accurately describes childhood asthma?
An obstructive airway disease characterized by reversible airflow obstruction, bronchial hyperreactivity, and inflammation
A pulmonary disease characterized by severe hypoxemia, decreased pulmonary compliance, and diffuse densities on chest x-ray imaging
A pulmonary disorder involving an abnormal expression of a protein, producing viscous mucus that lines the airways, pancreas, sweat ducts, and vas deferens
An obstructive airway disease characterized by atelectasis and increased pulmonary resistance as a result of a surfactant deficiency
Question 20. In which structure does B lymphocytes mature and undergo changes that commit them to becoming B cells?
Thymus gland
Regional lymph nodes
Bone marrow
Spleen
Question 21. Tissue damage caused by the deposition of circulating immune complexes containing an antibody against the host DNA is the cause of which disease?
Hemolytic anemia
Pernicious anemia
Systemic lupus erythematosus
Myasthenia gravis
Question 22. Where are Langerhans cells found?
Skin
Intestinal lining
Kidney
Thyroid
Question 23. What is the most commonly reported symptom of cancer treatment?
Nausea
Fatigue
Hair loss
Weight loss
Question 24. Cystic fibrosis is caused by which process?
Autosomal recessive inheritance
Autosomal dominant inheritance
Infection
Malignancy
Question 25. What is the primary cause of the symptoms of polycythemia vera?
Decreased erythrocyte count
Destruction of erythrocytes
Increased blood viscosity
Neurologic involvement
Question 26. What term is used to describe a hernial protrusion of a saclike cyst that contains meninges, spinal fluid, and a portion of the spinal cord through a defect in a posterior arch of a vertebra?
Encephalocele
Meningocele
Spina bifida occulta
Myelomeningocele
Question 27. How is the effectiveness of vitamin B12 therapy measured?
Reticulocyte count
Serum transferring
Hemoglobin
Serum vitamin B12
Question 28. The ability of the pathogen to invade and multiply in the host is referred to as:
Infectivity
Toxigenicity
Pathogenicity
Virulence
Question 29. Which is an example of an endogenous antigen?
Yeast
Cancer cells
Bacteria
Fungus
Question 30. Which immunoglobulin is present in blood, saliva, breast milk, and respiratory secretions?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 31. Which blood cells are the chief phagocytes involved in the early inflammation process?
Neutrophils
Monocytes
Eosinophils
Erythrocytes
Question 32. Which renal change is found in older adults?
Sharp decline in glomerular filtration rate
Sharp decline in renal blood flow
Decrease in the number of nephrons
Decrease in urine output
Question 33. A hypersensitivity reaction that produces an allergic response is called:
Hemolytic shock
Anaphylaxis
Necrotizing vasculitis
Systemic erythematosus
Question 34. What period follows depolarization of the myocardium and represents a period during which no new cardiac potential can be propagated?
Refractory
Hyperpolarization
Threshold
Sinoatrial (SA)
Question 35. What is the most common predisposing factor to obstructive sleep apnea in children?
Chronic respiratory infections
Adenotonsillar hypertrophy
Obligatory mouth breathing
Paradoxic breathing
Question 36. Kidney stones in the upper part of the ureter would produce pain referred to which anatomical area?
Vulva or penis
Umbilicus
Thighs
Lower abdomen
Question 37. Aspiration is most likely to occur in the right mainstem bronchus because it:
Extends vertically from the trachea.
Is narrower than the left mainstem bronchus.
Comes into contact with food and drink first.
Is located at the site where the bronchi bifurcate.
Question 38. Blood cells that differentiate into macrophages are known as:
Monocytes
Neutrophils
Eosinophils
Basophils
Question 39. What characteristic do atopic individuals have that make them genetically predisposed to develop allergies?
Greater quantities of histamine
More histamine receptors
Greater quantities of IgE
A deficiency in epinephrine
Question 40. Pressure in the left ventricle must exceed pressure in which structure before the left ventricle can eject blood?
Superior vena cava
Aorta
Inferior vena cava
Pulmonary veins
Question 41. How does chest wall compliance in an infant differ from that of an adult?
An adult’s chest wall compliance is lower than an infant’s.
An adult’s chest wall compliance is higher than an infant’s.
An adult’s chest wall compliance is the same as an infant’s.
An adult’s chest wall compliance is dissimilar to that of an infant’s.
Question 42. In a full-term infant, the normal erythrocyte life span is _____ days, whereas the adult erythrocyte life span is _____ days.
30 to 50; 80
60 to 80; 120
90 to 110; 140
120 to 130; 150
Question 43. Which type of microorganism reproduces on the skin?
Viruses
Bacteria and fungi
Protozoa and Rickettsiae
Mycoplasma
Question 44. An infant diagnosed with a small patent ductus arteriosus (PDA) would likely exhibit which symptom?
Intermittent murmur
Lack of symptoms
Need for surgical repair
Triad of congenital defects
Question 45. Oxygenated blood flows through which vessel?
Superior vena cava
Pulmonary veins
Pulmonary artery
Coronary veins
Question 46. : Why is the herpes virus inaccessible to antibodies after the initial infection?
The virus does not circulate in the blood.
It does not have antibody receptors.
It resists agglutination.
The virus is a soluble antigen.
Question 47. What type of immunity is produced when an immunoglobulin crosses the placenta?
Passive-acquired immunity
Active-acquired immunity
Passive-innate immunity
Active-innate immunity
Question 48. The concentration of the final urine is determined by antidiuretic hormone (ADH), which is secreted by which gland?
Posterior pituitary
Thyroid
Parathyroid
Anterior pituitary
Question 49. Exhaustion occurs if stress continues when which stage of the general adaptation syndrome is notsuccessful?
Flight or fight
Alarm
Adaptation
Arousal
Question 50. When the maternal immune system becomes sensitized against antigens expressed by the fetus, what reaction occurs?
T-cell immunity
Alloimmunity
Fetal immunity
Autoimmunity
Question 51. Which bones are affected in Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease?
Heads of the femur
Distal femurs
Heads of the humerus
Distal tibias
Question 52. What is the basic structural unit in compact bone?
Small channels called canaliculi
Osteocytes within the lacunae
Tiny spaces within the lacunae
Haversian system
Question 53. Which type of fracture usually occurs in an individual who engages in a new activity that is strenuous and repetitive?
Stress
Greenstick
Insufficiency
Pathologic
Question 54. Antipsychotic drugs block which neurotransmitter receptor?
Norepinephrine
Gamma-aminobutyric acid
Serotonin
Dopamine
Question 55. Which risk factor for hypertension is influenced by genetic factors and lifestyle?
Sodium intake
Physical inactivity
Psychosocial stress
Obesity
Question 56. : Where is oxytocin synthesized?
Hypothalamus
Paraventricular nuclei
Anterior pituitary
Posterior pituitary
Question 57. An insufficient dietary intake of which vitamin can lead to rickets in children?
C
B12
B6
D
Question 58. When insulin binds its receptors on muscle cells, an increase in glucose uptake by the muscle cells is the result. This is an example of what type of effect by a hormone?
Pharmacologic
Permissive
Synergistic
Direct
Question 59. Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is released to stimulate thyroid hormone (TH) and is inhibited when plasma levels of TH are adequate. This is an example of:
Positive feedback
Negative feedback
Neural regulation
Physiologic regulation
Question 60. At 2 or 3 weeks of age, an infant who has been well fed and has gained weight begins to vomit for no apparent reason. The vomiting gradually becomes more forceful. These symptoms may be indicative of which disorder?
Esophageal atresia
Congenital aganglionic megacolon
Pyloric stenosis
Galactosemia
Question 61. Neurofibrillary tangles characterize which neurologic disorder?
Dementia syndrome
Delirium
Alzheimer disease
Parkinson disease
Question 62. What is the target tissue for prolactin-releasing factor?
Hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary
Mammary glands
Posterior pituitary
Question 63. A child with which genetic disorder has a characteristic cry?
Down syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Turner syndrome
Cri du chat
Question 64. Which structure attaches skeletal muscle to bone?
Tendon
Ligament
Bursa
Mesentery
Question 65. Which condition poses the highest risk for a cerebrovascular accident (CVA)?
Insulin-resistant diabetes mellitus
Hypertension
Polycythemia
Smoking
Question 66. Which type of diarrhea results from lactose intolerance?
Secretory
Motility
Osmotic
Small volume
Question 67. The most critical aspect in correctly diagnosing a seizure disorder and establishing its cause is:
Computed tomographic (CT) scan
Cerebrospinal fluid analysis
Skull x-ray studies
Health history
Question 68. Which medical diagnosis is characterized by tissue degeneration or irritation of the extensor carpi radialis brevis tendon?
Lateral epicondylitis
Medial tendinitis
Bursitis
Lateral tendinitis
Question 69. Which change is a result of puberty and defends the vagina from infection?
The pH stabilizes between 7 and 8.
A thin squamous epithelial lining develops.
Vaginal pH becomes more acidic.
Estrogen levels are low.
Question 70. The number of persons living with a specific disease at a specific point in time is referred to by which term?
Relativity
Survivability
Prevalence
Incidence
Question 71. : Which hormone is involved in the regulation of serum calcium levels?
Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
Thyroxine (T4)
Adrenocorticotropic hormone (ACTH)
Triiodothyronine (T3)
Question 72. : The secretion of adrenocorticotropic-stimulating hormone (ACTH) will result in the increased level of which hormone?
Thyroxine
Insulin
Cortisol.
Antidiuretic hormone
Question 73. : What happens to the vagina’s lining at puberty?
It becomes thinner.
It becomes thicker.
It assumes a neutral pH.
It undergoes atrophy.
Question 74. : In 95% of children of delayed puberty, the problem is caused by:
Disruption in the hypothalamus
Disruption of the pituitary
Deficit in estrogen or testosterone
Physiologic hormonal delays
Question 75. : Adoption studies have shown that the offspring of an alcoholic parent when raised by nonalcoholic parents have what amount of an increased risk of developing alcoholism?
Twofold
Threefold
Fourfold
Tenfold
Question 76. : What directly causes ovulation during the menstrual cycle?
Gradual decrease in estrogen levels
Sudden increase of LH
Sharp rise in progesterone levels
Gradual increase in estrogen levels
Question 77. : The major sleep center is located in which section of the brain?
Thalamus
Brainstem
Frontal lobe
Hypothalamus
Question 78. : What is the second most commonly recognized genetic cause of mental retardation?
Down syndrome
Fragile X syndrome
Klinefelter syndrome
Turner syndrome
Question 79. : Which person is at the greatest risk for developing delirium?
An individual with diabetes celebrating a 70th birthday
A depressed Hispanic woman
An individual on the second day after hip replacement
A man diagnosed with schizophrenia
Question 80. : Which hormone triggers uterine contractions?
Thyroxine
Oxytocin
Growth hormone
Insulin
Question 81. Question : What is the risk for the recurrence of autosomal dominant diseases?
10%
30%
50%
70%
Question 82. : A person with 47, XXY karyotype has the genetic disorder resulting in which syndrome?
Turner
Klinefelter
Down
Fragile X
Question 83. : The failure of bones to ossify, resulting in soft bones and skeletal deformity, characterizes which disorder?
Osteogenesis imperfecta
Rickets
Osteochondrosis
Legg-Calvé-Perthes disease
Question 84. : What effect does hyperphosphatemia have on other electrolytes?
Increases serum calcium.
Decreases serum calcium.
Decreases serum magnesium.
Increases serum magnesium.
Question 85. : What term is used to identify an interlacing bundle of dense, white fibrous tissue that is richly supplied with nerves, blood vessels, and lymphatic vessels?
Procallus
Joint capsule
Hematoma
Elastin fibers
Question 86. : Where is the usual site of cervical dysplasia or cancer in situ?
Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the cuboidal epithelium of the vagina.
Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the uterus.
Squamous epithelium of the cervix meets the columnar epithelium of the uterus.
Columnar epithelium of the cervix meets the squamous epithelium of the vagina.
Question 87. : What is the most common malignant bone tumor diagnosed during childhood?
Chondrosarcoma
Fibrosarcoma
Ewing Sarcoma
Osteosarcoma
Question 88. Question : Obesity acts as an important risk factor for type 2 diabetes mellitus by:
Reducing the amount of insulin the pancreas produces
Increasing the resistance to insulin by cells
Obstructing the outflow of insulin from the pancreas
Stimulating the liver to increase glucose production
Question 89. What is the cause of familial hypercholesterolemia (FH)?
Diet high in saturated fats
Increased production of cholesterol by the liver
Reduction in the number of low-density lipoprotein (LDL) receptors on cell surfaces
Abnormal function of lipoprotein receptors circulating in the blood
Question 90. How do the clinical manifestations and onset of juvenile rheumatoid arthritis (JRA) differ from those of rheumatoid arthritis (RA) in adults?
JRA begins insidiously with systemic signs of inflammation.
JRA predominantly affects large joints.
JRA has more severe joint pain than adult RA.
JRA has a rapid onset of generalized aches as the first symptom.
Question 91. Question : Which clinical manifestations are associated with fibromyalgia?
Hot, tender, and edematous muscle groups bilaterally
Fasciculations of the upper and lower extremity muscles
Exercise intolerance and painful muscle cramps
Sensitivity at tender points and profound fatigue
Question 92. Question : Parkinson disease is a degenerative disorder of the brain’s:
Hypothalamus
Anterior pituitary
Frontal lobe
Basal ganglia
Question 93. Open-angle glaucoma occurs because of:
Decreased production of aqueous humor
Increased production of vitreous humor
Obstructed outflow of aqueous humor
Excessive destruction of vitreous humor
Question 94. Question : A complex partial seizure is described as:
Alternating of tonic and clonic movements
Impairment of both consciousness and the ability to react to exogenous stimuli
Focal motor movement without loss of consciousness
One seizure followed by another in less than 1 minute
Question 95. Why is prolonged diarrhea more severe in children than it is in adults?
Less water is absorbed from the colon in children.
Fluid reserves are smaller in children.
Children have a higher fluid volume intake.
Children have diarrhea more often than adults.
Question 96. Question : What is the blood type of a person who is heterozygous, having A and B alleles as codominant?
A
B
O
AB
Question 97. Question : The mucosal secretions of the cervix secrete which immunoglobulin?
IgA
IgE
IgG
IgM
Question 98. Question : Which clinical manifestations would be expected for a child who has complete trisomy of the twenty-first chromosome?
Widely spaced nipples, reduced carrying angle at the elbow, and sparse body hair
An IQ of 25 to 70, low nasal bridge, protruding tongue, and flat, low-set ears
High-pitched voice, tall stature, gynecomastia, and an IQ of 60 to 90
Circumoral cyanosis, edema of the feet, short stature, and mental slowness
Question 99. Dilation of the ipsilateral pupil, following uncal herniation, is the result of pressure on which cranial nerve (CN)?
Optic (CN I)
Abducens (CN VI)
Oculomotor (CN III)
Trochlear (CN IV)
Question 100. Question : A criterion for a diagnosis of generalized anxiety disorder (GAD) is a period of excessive worrying that lasts for at least how many months?
3
6
9
12
